While I do believe the Bible is inspired, I also try look at it from a translation process.
It goes something like this if I remember the history behind it. Some Jews translated the OT Hebrew into the Greek known as the Septuagint, and when they did this, they took
what belongs to Yahweh and attributed it to Christ. I'm not sure if this has anything to do with the topic, but I have a feeling it's a similar situation here. Do correct me if I'm wrong.
It is who he say he is or that he's verse in the old testament since he too had to learn it for he is still a Jew. Once learned, one can receive what the god of the old testament saids.
But if that is the case, why did Jesus not get prosecuted by the old testament god?
Somewhere in the new testament that shows what's being translated must be accurate. So those who translate must be smart and educated because not all can read and write plus they must have money cuz a paper and pen at the time isn't cheap either. What is being translated is accurate but later on, words lose it's meaning through many other prints of translation. Does it makes a difference? Absolutely. Like some says heaven when other says paradise. Contradictory? Looks like it but the culprit is the wording through translation that is being falsely representing.